Engineering Services Examination, 2026 - Examination Notice

JOBAdded: 29 Sep 2025Union Public Service Commission

Important Information

  • The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is launching a new online application portal for registration and application forms. The portal has four parts: Account Creation, Universal Registration, Common Application Form (CAF), and an exam-specific form.
  • All applicants must register afresh on the new portal and upload their documents. The old One Time Registration (OTR) module will no longer be applicable.
  • Detailed instructions for applying and uploading documents are available on the main page of the portal. Candidates are advised to read these instructions carefully and prepare their documents beforehand for a smooth application process.
  • Aadhaar card is recommended as identity proof for smooth and secure verification of identity and other details.

1. Ensure Eligibility for the Examination

  • All candidates (male/female/transgender) are advised to carefully read the rules for the Engineering Services Examination notified by the Government (Ministry of Communication, Department of Telecommunication) and the examination notice based on these rules.
  • Candidates applying for the examination must ensure that they fulfill all eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Admission at all stages of the examination will be purely provisional, subject to fulfilling the prescribed eligibility conditions.
  • Issuance of an e-admit card alone does not mean that the Commission has finally confirmed their candidature.
  • The Commission verifies the eligibility conditions based on the original certificates only after the candidate has qualified for the personality test.

2. How to Apply

  • Candidates must apply online only through the website: https://upsconline.nic.in.
  • Creating an account and generating a Universal Registration Number (URN) is mandatory. After that, proceed to fill all modules of the Common Application Form (CAF). URN registration is a one-time process for a lifetime. If a candidate has already completed all three parts, they can directly proceed to fill the exam-specific form (i.e., the fourth part).
  • Candidates applying for the Engineering Services Examination are required to apply online and submit necessary information and supporting documents for various claims such as date of birth, category (e.g., SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD/Ex-servicemen), educational qualification, etc., with the Common Application Form (CAF). Failure to submit the required information/documents during the submission of the Common Application Form (CAF) will result in the cancellation of candidature for the examination.
  • Note: Candidates should also note that once the Universal Registration Number (URN) and Common Application Form (CAF) and exam-specific form for the Engineering Services Examination are submitted, no addition/deletion/change will be allowed under any circumstances.

General Instructions for Online Application

  • Brief instructions are provided in Appendix-IIA. Detailed instructions for filling the online application are available on the aforementioned website.

2.3 Application Withdrawal

  • Candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their application after submission.

2.4 Photo Identification

  • Candidates must have a photo identification card such as an Aadhaar Card/Voter ID Card/PAN Card/Passport/Driving License/any other photo ID card issued by the State/Central Government. Details of this photo ID card must be provided while filling the Universal Registration Number (URN). This photo ID card will be used for reference in all future matters, and candidates are advised to keep this photo ID card with them when appearing for the examination/personality test.

3. Last Date for Application

  • Online application forms can be filled from 26.09.2025 to 16.10.2025 till 6:00 PM, after which the link will be deactivated.

4. E-Admit Card

  • E-admit cards will be issued in the last working week preceding the date of commencement of the examination. E-admit cards will be available on the Union Public Service Commission's website [www.upsc.gov.in] for candidates to download. No admit card will be sent by post.
  • All applicants are requested to provide a valid and active e-mail ID during account creation, as the Commission will use electronic means to contact them.

5. Penalty for Wrong Answers (Objective Type Questions)

  • Candidates should note that there will be a penalty (negative marking) for wrong answers given by them in the objective type question papers.

6. Helpdesk for Candidates

  • The Commission has established a special helpline for candidates' assistance during the application process. Candidates seeking clarification, instructions, or assistance regarding the application process or examination details can contact the helpline number 011-24041001.
  • This helpline will be operational from 10:00 AM to 5:30 PM on all working days during the application window (i.e., from 26.09.2025 to 16.10.2025). Applicants can use this service for any issues related to the application process, including fee payment and document upload.

7. Special Instructions

  • Candidates are advised to carefully read the 'Special Instructions for Conventional Type Question Papers and Objective Type Question Papers' (Appendix-III Part 'A' and Part 'B').
  • For writing and marking answers on OMR sheets (answer sheets) in objective type papers, candidates should use only a black ball pen. Use of any other colored pen is prohibited.
  • Candidates should note that any error/mistake/discrepancy in coding/filling details on the OMR answer sheet, especially regarding the roll number and test booklet series code, will lead to the rejection of the answer sheet.
  • Candidates with benchmark disabilities in the 'Blindness' category are advised not to apply for this examination, as no vacancies are identified/earmarked for them in the Engineering Services Examination, 2026. However, candidates with low vision benchmark disabilities are advised to apply only under the Electronics and Telecommunication category, as only services/posts in this category are identified for them.

8. Mobile Phones Prohibited

  • (a) During the examination, the use of mobile phones (whether switched off or not), pagers, or any other electronic device, programmable device, storage media like pen drives, smartwatches, cameras, or Bluetooth devices, or any other related device or communication equipment, whether switched off or on, is strictly prohibited. Any violation of these instructions may lead to disciplinary action, including debarment from future examinations.
  • (b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring mobile phones/pagers or any other prohibited items to the examination venue, as their safety cannot be guaranteed.

9. Online Question Paper Representation Portal (QPRep)

  • The Commission has fixed a time limit of 07 days (one week) for representations from candidates regarding questions asked in the examination papers, starting from the day after the examination till 06:00 PM on the seventh day. Such representations should be submitted only through the “Online Question Paper Representation Portal (QPRep)” at the URL http://upsconline.nic.in/miscellaneous/QPRep/. Representations received via e-mail/post/manual submission or any other means will not be accepted, and no correspondence will be entertained in this regard. No representation will be accepted under any circumstances after the expiry of this 07-day window.

10. Instructions for uploading photograph while filling Common Application Form (CAF)

  • (a) The photograph uploaded by the applicant should not be more than 10 days old from the date of commencement of the online application process (i.e., the date of opening the application window).
  • (b) The candidate's face should cover three-fourths (3/4) of the photograph.
  • (c) The candidate must ensure that their appearance matches their photograph during all stages of the examination process, i.e., Preliminary (Stage-I) Examination, Main (Stage-II) Examination, and Interview/Personality Test. For example, if the candidate's photograph shows a bearded face, they should appear in the same form during the Preliminary, Main, and Interview/Personality Test stages. The same applies to spectacles, moustaches, etc.

11. Examination Venue

  • Candidates must reach the examination venue at least 30 minutes before the commencement of each session. No candidate will be allowed to enter the examination venue if they are late under any circumstances.

Application Mode

  • Candidates must apply only through online mode.
  • "The Government is striving to achieve a balanced workforce with equal representation of male and female candidates, and female candidates are encouraged to apply."

Vacancy Details

  • F. No. 02/02/2025-P.1 (B) - As per the regulations published by the Ministry of Communication, Department of Telecommunication in the Gazette of India on 26 September 2025, the Union Public Service Commission will conduct the Preliminary/Stage-I Examination of the Engineering Services Examination on 08 February 2026 for recruitment to the services/posts mentioned in Para-2 below.

2. (a) Services/Posts based on Exam Results

  • Recruitment to the following categories of services/posts will be made based on the results of this examination:
    • Category 1 – Civil Engineering
    • Category 2 – Mechanical Engineering
    • Category 3 – Electrical Engineering
    • Category 4 – Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering
  • The total number of vacancies to be filled through this examination is approximately 474. This includes 26 vacancies for candidates with benchmark disabilities (PwBD): 15 vacancies for Locomotor Disability (including Leprosy Cured, Dwarfism, Acid Attack Victims, and Muscular Dystrophy), 7 vacancies for Hard of Hearing, 1 vacancy for Low Vision, and 3 vacancies for Specific Learning Disability and Multiple Disabilities. The number of vacancies may change.
  • Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, Economically Weaker Sections, and benchmark disability category candidates will be provided as per the procedure prescribed by the Government of India.

Participating Services (Group A Services/Posts)

Category 1 – Civil Engineering

  • (i) Central Engineering Service (Civil)
  • (ii) Central Engineering Service (Roads) Group "A" (Civil Engineering Post)
  • (iii) Indian Survey Department Group "A" Service
  • (iv) Assistant Executive Engineer (Civil) in Border Roads Engineering Service
  • (v) Assistant Executive Engineer (QS & C) in MES Surveyor Cadre
  • (vi) Central Water Engineering Service (Group "A")
  • (vii) Indian Skill Development Service
  • (viii) Indian Railway Management Service (Civil)
  • (ix) Indian Railway Management Service (Stores) - Civil Engineering Post

Category II – Mechanical Engineering

  • (i) Assistant Executive Engineer in GSI Engineering Service Group 'A'
  • (ii) Indian Naval Material Management Service (Mechanical Engineering Post)
  • (iii) Defence Aeronautical Quality Assurance Service/SSO-II (Mechanical)
  • (iv) Assistant Executive Engineer (Electrical & Mechanical) in Border Roads Engineering Service (Mechanical Engineering Post)
  • (v) Indian Skill Development Service
  • (vi) Indian Railway Management Service (Mechanical)
  • (vii) Indian Railway Management Service (Stores) – Mechanical Engineering Post
  • (viii) Indian Enterprise Development Service/Assistant Director Grade-I (IEDS) Mechanical Trade
  • (ix) Indian Enterprise Development Service/Assistant Director Grade-II (IEDS) Mechanical Trade
  • (x) Assistant Executive Engineer Group 'A' in Electrical & Mechanical Engineering Branch, Ministry of Defence (Mechanical Engineering Post).

Category III – Electrical Engineering

  • (i) Central Electrical & Mechanical Engineering Service (Electrical Engineering Post)
  • (ii) Indian Naval Material Management Service (Electrical Engineering Post)
  • (iii) Central Power Engineering Service Group 'A' (Electrical Engineering Post)
  • (iv) Defence Aeronautical Quality Assurance Service/SSO-II (Electrical)
  • (v) Indian Skill Development Service
  • (vi) Indian Enterprise Development Service/Assistant Director Grade-I (IEDS) Electrical Trade
  • (vii) Indian Enterprise Development Service/Assistant Director Grade-II (IEDS) Electrical Trade
  • (viii) Indian Railway Management Service (Electrical)
  • (ix) Indian Railway Management Service (Stores) – Electrical Engineering Post
  • (x) Assistant Executive Engineer Group 'A' in Electrical & Mechanical Engineering Branch, Ministry of Defence (Electrical Engineering Post).

Category IV – Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering

  • (i) Indian Radio Regulatory Service Group 'A'

  • (ii) Indian Telecommunication Service Group 'A'

  • (iii) Indian Naval Material Management Service (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering Post)

  • (iv) Defence Aeronautical Quality Assurance Service/SSO-II (Electronics & Telecommunication)

  • (v) Indian Skill Development Service

  • (vi) Junior Telecommunication Officer Group 'B'.

  • (vii) Indian Enterprise Development Service/Assistant Director Grade-I (IEDS) Electronic Trade

  • (viii) Indian Enterprise Development Service/Assistant Director Grade-II (IEDS) Electronic Trade

  • (ix) Indian Railway Management Service (Signal & Telecommunication)

  • (x) Indian Railway Management Service (Stores) - S&T Engineering Post

  • (xi) Assistant Executive Engineer Group 'A' in Electrical & Mechanical Engineering Branch, Ministry of Defence (Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering Post).

  • Transgender candidates for the posts of Assistant Executive Engineer (Civil) and Assistant Executive Engineer (Electrical & Mechanical) in Border Roads Engineering Service will be eligible as per decisions taken by the Government from time to time.

  • Note: Recruitment to the above mentioned posts/services will be based on the scheme of examination(s) specified in Appendix-I of this notice.

Special Attention

  • (i) Departmental candidates who are allowed age relaxation under Rule 5(b) and participate in the examination may also give their preference for appointment in other Ministries/Departments.
  • (ii) Only those preferences for posts specified in the proviso to Para 3(III) will be considered for candidates admitted to the examination under that proviso, and their preferences for other services and posts, if any, will not be considered.
  • (iii) Allocation of services/posts to candidates will be based on their medical fitness, their position in the merit list, their preferences, and the number of posts.

2. (k) Application Restriction

  • Candidates can apply for only one category out of the categories mentioned in Para 2 above, such as Civil Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, Electrical Engineering, or Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering.

2. (b) Examination Centers

(i) Examination Centers for Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination:

  • Agartala, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Aligarh, Prayagraj (Allahabad), Bengaluru, Bareilly, Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Dehradun, Delhi, Dharwad, Dispur (Guwahati), Gangtok, Gaya, Ghaziabad, Gorakhpur, Gurugram, Hyderabad, Imphal, Itanagar, Jaipur, Jammu, Jorhat, Kochi (Cochin), Kohima, Kolkata, Lucknow, Madurai, Mumbai, Nagpur, Noida (Gautam Buddha Nagar), Panaji (Goa), Patna, Port Blair, Raipur, Ranchi, Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Srinagar, Thiruvananthapuram, Tirupati, Udaipur, Varanasi, Visakhapatnam.

(ii) Examination Centers for Engineering Services (Main) Examination:

  • Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Bengaluru, Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Dehradun, Delhi, Dispur (Guwahati), Hyderabad, Jaipur, Jammu, Kolkata, Lucknow, Mumbai, Patna, Prayagraj (Allahabad), Raipur, Ranchi, Shillong, Shimla, Srinagar, Thiruvananthapuram, Visakhapatnam.

  • The Commission may change the above examination centers and dates at its discretion.

Important Note on Centers

  • Candidates should note that the number of candidates allotted to each center, except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata, and Nagpur, will be limited. Centers will be allotted on a 'first apply, first allot' basis, and once the maximum capacity of a particular center is reached, that center will be closed. Applicants who cannot get a center of their choice due to the maximum capacity being reached will have to choose from the remaining centers. Therefore, applicants are advised to apply early to secure their preferred examination center.
  • Note: Notwithstanding the above provisions, the Commission reserves the right to change the center according to circumstances.
  • Information regarding the time table and examination venue(s) will be provided to the candidates.
  • Candidates should note that no request for a change of center will be entertained.

3. Eligibility Conditions

(I) Nationality

  • A candidate must be either:
    • (a) a citizen of India, or
    • (b) a subject of Nepal, or
    • (c) a subject of Bhutan, or
    • (d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 01 January 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or
    • (e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
  • Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d), and (e) shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. Such candidates may also be admitted to the examination, but the offer of appointment will be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate is issued by the Government of India.

(II) Age Limits

  • (a) A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 30 years as on 01 January 2026, i.e., he must have been born not earlier than 02 January 1996 and not later than 01 January 2005.
  • (b) The upper age limit will be 35 years instead of 30 years for government servants of the categories specified in Column 1 below, who are appointed in a department/office under the control of the authorities specified in Column 2, if they apply for admission to the examination and are otherwise eligible for the service(s)/post(s) specified in Column 2.
    • (i) This relaxation will not apply to a candidate who is a probationary officer holding a permanent post in the concerned department/office. However, this concession will be admissible to a temporary appointee if he has a lien on an equivalent temporary post in the department/office under the control of any of the authorities specified in Column 1 below.
    • (ii) A candidate who has rendered at least 3 years of continuous temporary service on a regular basis in a particular department/office as on 01 January 2026.
Age Relaxation for Government Employees
Column 1 (Department/Ministry) Column 2 (Service/Post)
Central Public Works Department C.E.S. Group 'A', C.E. & M.E.S. Group 'A'
Ministry of Road Transport & Highways Central Engineering Service (Roads) Group 'A'
Ministry of Communication, Dept. of Telecommunication Indian Radio Regulatory Service Group 'A', Indian Telecommunication Service Group 'A', Junior Telecommunication Officer (G.C.S Group 'B')
Ministry of Defence, Dept. of Defence Production, Directorate General of Aeronautical Quality Assurance Defence Aeronautical Quality Assurance Service (DAQA) Group 'A'
Ministry of Science & Technology, Dept. of Science & Technology Indian Survey Department Service Group 'A'
Border Roads Organization Border Roads Engineering Service Group 'A'
Indian Navy Indian Naval Armament Service, Indian Naval Material Management Service
Military Engineering Services Indian Engineer Defence Service (I.D.S.E.) Group 'A', Military Engineering Service (MES) Surveyor Cadre in A.E.E. (QS & C)
Ministry of Jal Shakti, Dept. of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation, Central Water Commission Central Water Engineering Service Group 'A'
Central Electricity Authority CPES Group 'A'
Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship Indian Skill Development Service
Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Indian Enterprise Development Service
Geological Survey of India Assistant Executive Engineer Group 'A'
Ministry of Railways (Railway Board) Indian Railway Management Service (Civil), Indian Railway Management Service (Mechanical), Indian Railway Management Service (Electrical), Indian Railway Management Service (Signal & Telecommunication), Indian Railway Management Service (Stores)
Electronics & Mechanical Engineering Branch, Ministry of Defence Assistant Executive Engineer, Group 'A' in Electronics & Mechanical Engineering Branch, Ministry of Defence (Mechanical Engineering Post), Assistant Executive Engineer, Group 'A' in Electronics & Mechanical Engineering Branch, Ministry of Defence (Electrical Engineering Post), Assistant Executive Engineer, Group 'A' in Electronics & Mechanical Engineering Branch, Ministry of Defence (Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering Post)
  • (c) In addition to the above, the upper age limit will also be relaxed in the following situations:

    • (i) For Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe candidates: up to a maximum of 5 (five) years.
    • (ii) For Other Backward Classes candidates who are eligible for reservation: up to a maximum of 3 (three) years.
    • (iii) For Defence Service Personnel disabled in operations during war with a foreign country or in disturbed areas and released as a consequence thereof: up to a maximum of 3 (three) years.
    • (iv) For Ex-servicemen, including Commissioned Officers and Emergency Commissioned Officers (ECOs)/Short Service Commissioned Officers (SSCOs), who have rendered at least 5 (five) years of military service as on 01 January 2026 and who (1) have been released on completion of assignment otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency or on physical disability attributable to military service or on invalidment, or (2) have been released due to physical disability attributed to military service, or (3) released due to invalidment: up to a maximum of 5 (five) years.
    • (v) For ECOs/SSCOs who have completed an initial period of 5 (five) years of military service as on 01 January 2026 and whose period of service has been extended further, and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues a certificate that they can apply for civil employment and will be released on three months' notice from the date of receipt of offer of appointment: up to a maximum of 5 (five) years.
    • (vi) For candidates with benchmark disabilities, viz. blindness, deaf and hard of hearing, locomotor disability including leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims, muscular dystrophy, specific learning disability and mental illness: up to a maximum of 10 years.
  • Note 1: Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes or Other Backward Classes, who are also covered under the categories mentioned in rules 3(II)(c) above, i.e., ex-servicemen or benchmark disability category, will be eligible for cumulative age relaxation under both categories.

  • Note 2: The term 'ex-servicemen' shall apply to persons who are defined as ex-servicemen under the Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Civil Services and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended from time to time.

  • Note 3: Age relaxation for ex-servicemen under Para 3(ii)(c)(iv) and (v) shall be admissible. Ex-servicemen means a person who has served in any rank (whether combatant or non-combatant) in the Regular Army, Navy, and Air Force of the Union of India and who has been retired/relieved/discharged from service either on his own request or on receipt of pension.

  • Note IV: Details of functional classification (FC) and physical requirements (PR) for each service are given in Annexure-I of these rules, which have been determined and provided by the concerned cadre controlling authorities (CCAs) as per the provisions of Sections 33 and 34 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016. PwBD candidates should apply only for the categories of disability mentioned in Annexure-1. Therefore, PwBD candidates are advised to read this carefully before applying for this examination.

  • Note V: Notwithstanding the age relaxation under Para 3(II)(c)(vi), a PwBD candidate's eligibility for appointment will be considered only if they meet the physical and medical standards prescribed for the concerned services/posts allocated to PwBD candidates (after a physical examination by the Government or the appointing authority, as the case may be).

  • Note VI: A candidate will be eligible for community reservation benefits only if their caste is included in the Central Government's list of reserved communities.

Reservation and Eligibility for EWS/OBC Candidates

  • Candidates will be eligible for reservation under the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) only if they meet the criteria prescribed by the Central Government and possess a valid eligibility certificate. If a candidate indicates in their Engineering Services application form that they belong to the General category but later writes to the Commission to change their category to a Reserved category, such a request will not be considered by the Commission. In addition, if a candidate has once opted for a Reserved category, no request for change to any other Reserved category, such as Scheduled Caste to Scheduled Tribe, Scheduled Tribe to Scheduled Caste, Other Backward Class to Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe, Scheduled Caste to Economically Weaker Section, Economically Weaker Section to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe to Economically Weaker Section, Economically Weaker Section to Scheduled Tribe, Other Backward Class to Economically Weaker Section, Economically Weaker Section to Other Backward Class, will be considered by the Commission. After the final results are declared by the Union Public Service Commission, no candidate from a Reserved category, except those qualifying on general standards at each stage of the examination, will be allowed to convert their category from Reserved to Unreserved (as per their request or based on documents submitted to the Commission) or claim for vacancies in the Unreserved category (service/cadre). Candidature of candidates who do not qualify on general standards will be cancelled.

  • Furthermore, no person with a benchmark disability in any sub-category will be allowed to change their sub-category of disability.

  • Candidates wishing to avail reservation/relaxation benefits for SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD/Ex-servicemen must ensure that they are eligible for such reservation/relaxation as per the rules/notice. They must possess all required certificates in the format prescribed in the rules/notice by the last date. (PwBD candidates must submit their disability certificate in the prescribed format as per Appendix-III V to VII of the notification of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment dated 15 June 2017, as applicable).

  • A candidate for the Engineering Services Examination, 2026 will be considered eligible for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) reservation only if they meet the conditions prescribed by the Central Government and possess a valid income and asset certificate for the financial year 2024-2025, issued on or after 01.04.2025, but not later than the last date for receipt of application forms for the Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2026, i.e., 16.10.2025.

  • Other Backward Classes candidates applying for the Engineering Services Examination, 2026 must compulsorily submit a Non-Creamy Layer certificate based on income for the financial years 2024-2025, 2023-2024, and 2022-2023, which should be issued on or after 01.04.2025, but not later than the last date for receipt of application forms for the Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2026, i.e., 16.10.2025.

  • However, while the above principle will generally be followed, there may be some cases where the difference between the date of issue of a Government notification for inclusion of a particular community in any list of reserved communities and the date of application by the candidate is more than three months. In such cases, the Commission will consider the request for conversion of the community from general to reserved on merit.

  • In unfortunate cases where a candidate with benchmark disability occurs during the examination process, the candidate must submit valid documents stating that they suffer from 40% or more disability as defined under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act (RPwD Act), 2016 (only low vision, locomotor disability including leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims, muscular dystrophy, hard of hearing, specific learning disability and mental illness), so that they can avail the benefit of reservation for benchmark disabled persons, provided the concerned candidate is otherwise eligible for the Engineering Services Examination as per Para 11 and the Commission decides on merit in such cases.

Candidature Cancellation

  • Special Note: The candidature of a candidate who has been admitted to the examination by availing age relaxation under Para 3(II)(b) above will be cancelled if, after submitting the application form, they resign from service or their service is terminated before or after taking the examination. However, if their service or post is retrenched after submitting the application form, they will remain eligible to take the examination. A candidate who is transferred to another department/office after submitting their application form will also be eligible to participate in the competition with age relaxation from the department.
  • No age relaxation will be given under any circumstances beyond the prescribed age limit.

Date of Birth

  • The Commission accepts the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or an equivalent certificate recognized by an Indian University for Matriculation, or an extract from the Matriculates Register maintained by a university, duly certified by the appropriate authority of the university, or as recorded in the Higher Secondary Examination or its equivalent examination. These certificates, which are required to be submitted with the Common Application Form by candidates qualifying based on the results of the written part of the examination, will be accepted.
  • No other documents such as horoscopes, affidavits, municipal corporation birth extracts, or service records and similar certificates regarding birth will be accepted. The phrase "Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate" in this part of the instructions includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.
  • Note 1: Candidates should note that the Commission will accept the date of birth as entered in the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate or equivalent certificate at the time of submitting the application form, and no request for any change in it for any reason will be considered or accepted thereafter.
  • Note 2: Candidates should also note that after their date of birth is entered once in the application form for admission to any examination and recorded by the Commission in its records, no change will be allowed later or for any other examination of the Commission.
  • Note 3: Candidates should fill their date of birth carefully in the application form. If any discrepancy is found later during verification between the date of birth filled by them and the date of birth given in their matriculation or equivalent examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission.

Correspondence with the Commission

  • All correspondence in this regard must contain the following details:
    1. Name and year of the examination.
    2. URN (Universal Registration Number).
    3. Roll number (if received).
    4. Candidate's name (full and in block letters).
    5. Full postal address given in the application form.
    6. Valid and active e-mail ID.

(III) Minimum Educational Qualification

  • To be admitted to the examination, a candidate must possess:

    • (a) A degree in Engineering from a university incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature or an educational institution established by an Act of Parliament, or deemed to be a university under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956; OR
    • (b) Passed Sections A and B of the Institution Examinations of the Institution of Engineers (India); OR
    • (c) Obtained a degree/diploma in Engineering from a foreign university/college/institution recognized by the Government for this purpose from time to time; OR
    • (d) Passed the Graduate Membership Examination of the Institution of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineers (India); OR
    • (e) Passed Sections II and III/A and B of the Associate Membership Examination of the Aeronautical Society of India; OR
    • (f) Obtained a Graduate Membership Examination of the Institution of Electronics and Radio Engineers (London) after November 1959.
  • However, for the posts in the Indian Naval Armament Service (Electronics Engineering Post) and Indian Radio Regulatory Service Group 'A', candidates must possess one of the above qualifications or the following qualifications:

    • For Indian Naval Armament Service (Electronics Engineering Post): M.Sc. degree or equivalent with Wireless Communication Electronics, Radio Physics, or Radio Engineering as a special subject.
    • For Indian Radio Regulatory Service Group 'A': M.Sc. degree or equivalent with Wireless Communication Electronics, Radio Physics, or Radio Engineering as a special subject, or a Master's degree in Science with Physics and Radio Communication or Electronics and Telecommunication as a special subject.
  • Note 1: As notified by the Ministry of Education vide letter number 20-2/2019-TC (Part) dated 06 June 2023, in view of the judgment of the Hon'ble High Court dated 13.01.2023 in Writ Petition (Civil) 3239/2013, degrees/certificates obtained by candidates who enrolled in the Institution of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineers (India) and Aeronautical Society of India after 31.05.2013 will not be acceptable for the Engineering Services Examination, 2026. Additionally, for candidates who enrolled in the Institution of Engineers (India) after 31.05.2013 and obtained degrees/certificates, their eligibility will be subject to the Government's decision in compliance with the Hon'ble High Court's judgment in Writ Petition number 3790/2013.

  • Note 2: If a candidate has appeared for an examination, the passing of which would render him educationally eligible for this examination, but has not yet been informed of the results, he may apply for admission to this examination. Candidates wishing to appear for such qualifying examination may also apply. Such candidates, if otherwise eligible, will be admitted to the examination, but this permission will be provisional. However, such candidates, if declared qualified by the Commission for the interview/personality test, will be required to submit proof of passing the requisite qualifying examination within the specified time, which is as follows.

  • After the declaration of the result of the Main Examination/Stage-II of the Engineering Services Examination, a window will be provided to the candidates who have qualified for the Personality Test/Interview to update their educational qualification status. Candidates who do not possess the prescribed educational qualification at the time of online application will have to update their details and upload proof of passing the required educational qualification with the Common Application Form, failing which their candidature will be cancelled.

Other Important Notes

  • Note: During this period, all qualified candidates for the personality test will also be given the option to update their correspondence/postal address, higher qualifications, achievements in various fields, employment details/service experience, service allocation, and service preference. The details updated in this window will be considered final, and no request for any change in these fields received through any other means will be considered further.
  • Note 3: In special circumstances, the Union Public Service Commission may also consider a candidate eligible for admission to the examination if they do not possess any of the qualifications prescribed in the rules, provided that the candidate has passed an examination conducted by an institution which, in the opinion of the Commission, is of such a standard that the candidate can be admitted to the said examination based on it.
  • Note 4: A candidate who is otherwise qualified but holds a degree from a foreign university that is not recognized by the Government may also apply to the Commission and may be admitted to the examination at the discretion of the Commission.

(IV) Medical Examination

  • Final recommended candidates for the Engineering Services Examination, 2026, must undergo a medical examination.
  • (a) Each candidate, after being finally recommended by the Commission, will have to undergo a medical examination as per the decision taken by the Ministry of Communication, Department of Telecommunication, even if they have undergone such a medical examination in the past and have been declared fit/unfit based on that examination. The findings of the Medical Board will be final and binding for all allocation purposes.

(V) Physical Standards

  • Candidates must be physically fit as per the physical standards given in Appendix-II of the Engineering Services Examination, 2026 rules published in the Gazette of India on 26.09.2025.

4. Fees

  • (a) Candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) (except SC/ST/PwBD candidates who are exempted from paying the fee as mentioned in Note-2 of point 4 (Fee) of the notice) by depositing cash in any branch of the State Bank of India or by using Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card/UPI payment or through the internet banking service of any bank.

  • Note 1: Candidates should note that the fee can only be paid through the above prescribed methods. Fee payment through any other means will not be valid and not accepted. Applications submitted without fee (except exempted applications) will be summarily rejected.

  • Note 2: Once the fee is paid, no request for refund will be considered, nor can the fee be reserved for any other examination or selection.

  • Note 3: In cases where bank payment details are not received, it will be considered a fraudulent payment, and their application forms will be immediately rejected. A list of all such applicants will be made available on the Commission's website within two weeks after the last date for submission of online application forms. Applicants must send proof of their fee payment to the Commission by hand or speed post within 10 days from the date of such notification. Upon receipt of proof, genuine cases of fee payment will be considered, and their application forms will be accepted, provided they are eligible.

Fee Exemption

  • All women candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes/Benchmark Disability (PwBD) categories are exempted from paying fees. However, candidates from other Backward Classes are not exempted from paying fees and must pay the full prescribed fee.
  • PwBD candidates (fee exempted) must submit a certified copy of their certificate of physical disability, obtained from a Government hospital/medical board, along with their Common Application Form, in support of their claim of physical disability.
  • Note: Notwithstanding the above provisions for age/fee relaxation, a PwBD candidate will be considered eligible for appointment only if they meet the physical and medical standards for the concerned services/posts allocated to PwBD candidates (after such physical examination as may be prescribed by the Government or the appointing authority, as the case may be).
  • Note: Application forms without the prescribed fee (except those claiming fee exemption) will be summarily rejected.

5. How to Apply

  • (a) Candidates are required to apply online using the link www.upsconline.nic.in. Creating an account and generating a Universal Registration Number (URN) is mandatory for applicants, and thereafter they should proceed to fill all modules of the Common Application Form (CAF). URN registration will be a one-time process for a lifetime. It can be done at any time during the year. If a candidate has already completed all three parts, they can directly initiate the process of filling the exam-specific form, i.e., the fourth part.
  • Brief instructions are provided in Appendix-IIA. Detailed instructions for filling the online application are available on the aforementioned website.
  • (iii) Candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their application after submission.
  • (b) Candidates are advised to submit only one application form. However, if due to unavoidable circumstances, a candidate submits more than one application form, they must ensure that the application form with the higher RID (Registration ID) is complete in all respects, i.e., candidate's details, examination center, photograph, signature, fee, etc. Candidates submitting more than one application form should note that only the application form with the higher RID will be accepted by the Commission, and the fee paid for one RID will not be adjusted for any other RID.
  • (c) All candidates, whether already in government service or in government industrial undertakings or similar other organizations, or appointed specifically for a job, which does not include casual or daily wage appointees, must apply online directly to the Commission. They must inform the Head of their Office/Department in writing that they have applied for this examination. Candidates should note that if the Commission receives a letter from their employer withholding permission for their application/appearance in the said examination, their application form may be rejected/their candidature may be cancelled.

Instructions for Examination

  • Note 1: While filling their application form, candidates should carefully decide their examination center and Engineering subject. If a candidate appears at any center/Engineering subject other than that specified in their e-admit card, their answer sheets will not be evaluated, and their candidature will be cancelled.
  • Note 2: Provisions for assistance by a scribe for candidates with low vision and locomotor disability who have slow writing speed (minimum 40% disability) have been made in the online application form.
  • Note 3: Incomplete or incorrectly filled application forms will be summarily rejected. No representation or correspondence regarding rejection will be accepted under any circumstances.
  • Candidates are not required to send a printout of their online application form to the Commission at this stage.

6. Verification of Eligibility

  • Candidates applying for the examination must ensure that they fulfill all eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all stages of the examination, for which the Commission has admitted them, i.e., the written examination and the interview/personality test, will be purely provisional and subject to fulfilling their prescribed eligibility conditions. If it is found during verification before or after the written examination and interview/personality test that they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission.
  • Candidates are requested to keep attested copies of the following documents ready for submission to the Commission after the declaration of the examination results:
    • a. Age proof.
    • b. Educational qualification proof.
    • c. Proof of belonging to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe, Other Backward Class, and Economically Weaker Section, where applicable.
    • d. Proof of claim for age/fee relaxation, where applicable.

7. Original Certificates

  • Original certificates must be presented at the time of the interview. Interview letters will also be issued electronically.

8. Disciplinary Action

  • If a candidate's claims are found to be incorrect, disciplinary action may be taken against them as per Rule 11 of the Engineering Services Examination, 2026 rules, notified in the Gazette of India dated 26 September 2025, which is quoted below:
    • (1) A candidate who is found guilty of misconduct or declared guilty by the Commission for:
      • (a) Supporting their candidature in the following ways:
        • (i) Offering unlawful gratification, or
        • (ii) Exerting undue pressure, or
        • (iii) Blackmailing or threatening any person connected with the examination, or
      • (b) Impersonation, or
      • (c) Availing the services of another person in a disguised capacity, or
      • (d) Submitting forged certificates/false certificates or documents with manipulated facts, or
      • (e) Uploading inconsistent photograph/signature on the application form, or
      • (f) Making false statements or concealing any material fact, or
      • (g) Using unfair means in relation to their candidature for the examination, namely:
        • (i) Obtaining a copy of the question paper improperly, or
        • (ii) Obtaining full information about a person connected with the confidential work of the examination, or
        • (iii) Influencing examiners, or
      • (h) Using unfair means during the examination, or
      • (i) Writing irrelevant remarks or drawing crude diagrams or inappropriate material on the answer sheets, or
      • (j) Misbehaving in the examination hall, including tearing answer sheets, instigating others to boycott the examination, or creating disturbance, or any similar situation, or
      • (k) Harassing or threatening or causing physical harm to the staff appointed by the Commission for conducting the examination, or
      • (l) Using mobile phones (whether switched off or not), pagers, or any other electronic device, programmable device, storage media like pen drives, smartwatches, cameras, or Bluetooth devices, or any other related device or communication equipment, whether switched off or on, or in possession of such items, or
      • (m) Violating the instructions issued with the certificates of permission for the examination, or
      • (n) Attempting to abet any or all of the acts mentioned in the above clauses, as the case may be,
    • then they may be criminally prosecuted, and also declared ineligible for the examination for which they are a candidate under these rules, and/or permanently or for a specified period:
      • (i) Debarred from any examination or selection conducted by the Commission.
      • (ii) Debarred from any job under the Central Government.
    • If they are already in government service, disciplinary action may be taken against them under the above rules.
    • Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed unless:
      • (i) The candidate is given an opportunity to submit a written representation in this regard, and
      • (ii) The representation submitted by the candidate, if any, within the permitted time, is considered.
    • (2) Any person who is found to be in connivance or collaboration with any other candidate in committing any of the misdeeds mentioned in clauses (a) to (e) of the above paragraph will be liable for action as per the provisions of clause (l) of paragraph 11 (1) above.
  • Note: "If a candidate is found to be in possession of a prohibited item or using unfair means, the incident will be brought to the attention of the examination officials, and the candidate will not be allowed to continue the said examination. The Commission will then take action against the candidate. Furthermore, the candidate will not be allowed to appear in subsequent papers of the said examination."

9. Last Date for Application

  • Online application forms can be filled till 16 October 2025, 6:00 PM. The link will be deactivated thereafter. Detailed instructions for filling online applications are provided in Appendix-IIA.

10. Correspondence with the Commission

  • The Commission will not correspond with candidates in any other matter except in the following cases:
    • (i) E-admit cards will be issued to eligible candidates in the last working week prior to the date of the examination. E-admit cards will be available on the Union Public Service Commission's website www.upsc.gov.in, which candidates can download. No admit card will be sent by post. Candidates must have their important details, i.e., RID and Date of Birth, or Roll Number (if received), or Name, Father's Name, and Date of Birth, available to download the e-admit card/e-admission certificate.
    • (ii) If a candidate does not receive an e-admit card or any other information related to their candidature three days before the commencement of the examination, they should immediately contact the Commission. Information in this regard can also be obtained personally from the Facilitation Counter located on the Commission's premises or by telephone at 011-23381125/011-23385271/011-23098543. If any information regarding non-receipt of e-admit card is not received by the Commission's office at least one week before the commencement of the examination, the candidate will be solely responsible for the non-receipt of the e-admit card.
    • Normally, no candidate will be allowed to appear for the examination without an e-admit card. After receiving the e-admit card, check it carefully and immediately inform the Commission of any discrepancy/error. Candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be provisional based on the information provided by them in the application form. This will be subject to the verification of eligibility conditions by the Commission.
    • The mere fact that a candidate has been issued an e-admit card for the said examination does not mean that their candidature has been finally approved by the Commission or that the entries made by the candidate in their examination application form have been accepted by the Commission as correct. Candidates should note that the Commission verifies the eligibility conditions based on original documents only after they qualify for the interview for the personality test based on the results of the written examination. Candidature will remain provisional until formally confirmed by the Commission. The Commission's decision regarding the acceptance of a candidate's application form and their eligibility for appearing in the said examination will be final.
    • Candidates should note that sometimes names on the admit card may be abbreviated due to technical reasons.
    • (iv) If a candidate receives an e-admit card related to another candidate due to a procedural error, they should immediately inform the Commission and request the issuance of the correct e-admit card. Candidates should note that they will not be allowed to appear for the examination based on an e-admit card issued to another candidate.
    • (v) Candidates must ensure that the e-mail ID provided by them in the application is valid and active.

Important Correspondence Details

  • All correspondence with the Commission must essentially contain the following details:
    1. Name and year of the examination.
    2. URN (Universal Registration Number).
    3. Roll number (if received).
    4. Candidate's name (full and in block letters).
    5. Valid and active e-mail ID.
    6. Full postal address given in the application form.
  • Special Note (i): Letters without these details may not be attended to.
  • Special Note (ii): If a letter/correspondence is received from a candidate after the completion of an examination, without their full name and roll number, no action will be taken on it.

11. Identified Disability Categories for Services/Posts

  • (Functional Classification and Physical Requirements):
    • "For candidates with benchmark disabilities, for consideration for appointment against reserved vacancies, persons with physical disabilities must have 40% (forty percent) or more disability. The functional classification in such cases will be as per the requirements of the concerned services/posts, the details of which are given in Annexure-I. However, such candidates must fulfill the physical requirements/abilities as per the details given in Annexure-I and submit a disability certificate in the format given in Annexure-III."

12. Disclosure of Marks

  • To provide more employment opportunities to unemployed persons, as per the decision taken by the Government, the Commission will publicly disclose the marks obtained by candidates (in Preliminary/Stage-I Examination, Main/Stage-II Examination, and Interview/Personality Test) through a public portal.
  • This declaration of marks will be made only in the case of those candidates who participate in the personality test for the Engineering Services Examination but are not finally recommended for appointment. The information shared about non-recommended candidates through this disclosure scheme can be used by other recruitment agencies (private and public) for suitable appointments based on the information available on the public portal.
  • Candidates will have to give their option in this regard at the time of the interview/personality test. This option will be provided to them while sending the acknowledgment of the e-summons for the interview. Candidates can also opt not to participate in this scheme. If they do so, their marks will not be disclosed by the Commission.
  • In addition to sharing information about non-recommended candidates in examinations conducted by the Commission, the Commission will have no responsibility or liability for how information related to candidates participating in the Commission's examinations/selection processes is used by other private or public organizations and in what manner.

Rounding of Marks and Tie-Breaking Principle

  • (a) Rounding of Marks:
    • In all stages of the examination(s), the marks obtained by candidates will be rounded off to two decimal places, wherever applicable, using standard rounding principles. Accordingly, for applying tie-breaking principles, marks rounded off to two decimal places will be considered for all cases of tie.
  • (b) Tie-Breaking Principle:
    • (i) If the total marks (final marks) are equal, the candidate with more marks obtained by combining the marks of all three papers of the Engineering Subject ("Stage-I: Paper-II – Civil/Mechanical/Electrical/Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering") AND Stage-II: Papers-I & II – Civil/Mechanical/Electrical/Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering") AND Personality Test will be given a higher rank;
    • (ii) If the marks in (i) above are also equal, the older candidate will be given a higher rank;
    • (iii) If the marks in (i) and (ii) above are also equal, the older candidate will be given a higher rank; and
    • (iv) In cases where a tie persists even after applying the above tie-breaking principles, the tie will be resolved at the discretion of the Commission.

Appendix-I: Identified Suitable Services/Posts for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities, including Physical Requirements and Functional Description.

  • (Note: The full list of services and their specific functional classifications (FC) and physical requirements (PR) is extensive. The table below provides examples. For complete details, refer to the official Appendix-I document.)

Category I - Civil Engineering

S.No. Name of Services Functional Description (FC) Physical Requirements (PR)
1. Central Engineering Service OA or OL or Hard of Hearing As per instructions of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
2. Indian Defence Engineering Service (Civil) PD or OA B, S, ST, W, SE, H and RW
3. Central Water Engineering Service Group 'A' OA, OL, Leprosy Cured, Acid Attack Victims, Dwarfism, HH, SLD, OA and PD, OL and PD S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C, R, W and RW

Category II - Mechanical Engineering

S.No. Name of Services Functional Description (FC) Physical Requirements (PR)
1. Central Water Engineering Service Group 'A' OA or OL, Leprosy Cured, Acid Attack Victims, Dwarfism, Hard of Hearing, SLD, OA and PD, OL and PD S, ST, BN, W, SE, MF, C, R, W and RW
2. Central Power Engineering Service Group 'A' (Mechanical Engineering Post) OL ST, S, SE, MF, BN, KC, H.C

Category III - Electrical Engineering

S.No. Name of Services Functional Description (FC) Physical Requirements (PR)
1. Central Electrical and Mechanical Engineering Service (Electrical Engineering) OL or Hard of Hearing As per orders of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
2. Central Power Engineering Service Group 'A' (Electrical Engineering Post) OL, Hard of Hearing S, ST, BN, SE, W, MF, PP, L, KC, C, R, W

Category IV - Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering

S.No. Name of Services Functional Description (FC) Physical Requirements (PR)
1. Indian Naval Armament Service OL S, SE, H and RW
2. Indian Naval Material Management Service OL S, SE, H and RW
3. Indian Telecommunication Service, Group A LV, OL or OA or MW F, S, ST, W, SE, H and RW
  • The above list may be modified.
  • The abbreviations used (as per the description below) are as per notification no. 16-15/2010-DD III dated 29.07.2013 of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
    • OA=One Arm affected, OL=One Leg affected, HI=Hearing Impaired, PD=Partially Deaf, MW=Muscular Weakness, S=Sitting, BN=Bending, SE=Seeing, RW=Reading and Writing, C=Communication, F/MF=Using Fingers, PP=Pulling and Pushing, L=Lifting, KC=Kneeling and Crouching, ST=Standing, W=Walking, H=Hearing, JU=Jumping, H (acceptable with hearing aids=hearing up to 25 dB), OH=Orthopedic Handicap, LD=Locomotor Disability, CP=Cerebral Palsy, SLD=Specific Learning Disability, MI=Mental Illness, CL=Climbing.
  • The post of JTO is suitably identified to be filled under the sub-category of Spinal Deformity and Spinal Injury (SI) (diseases related to arms and legs) under the Locomotor Disability category.
  • Note (i): To avoid inconvenience later, PwBD candidates must ensure that their sub-category of disability for reservation has been identified.
  • Note (ii): Please also note that a temporary disability certificate does not grant candidates the right to claim reservation under the physical disability quota.
  • Note (iii): Please submit the disability certificate only in the format prescribed in Appendix-III.

Appendix-II: Additional Instructions for Candidates for Medical Examination

  • (i) The date/place of medical examination and the final fitness status (Fit/Unfit/Partially Unfit/Temporarily Unfit) will be uploaded on the official website of the Ministry of Communication, Department of Telecommunication. No separate written intimation will be sent to candidates regarding these uploads.
  • (ii) Candidates must bring three copies of the Medical Board Report - 2026 form. This form can be downloaded from the official website of the Ministry of Communication, Department of Telecommunication.
  • (iii) Candidates must bring a government-issued photo identity card and three passport-size photographs. Candidates who have been recommended for reserved vacancies for persons with disabilities must also bring their original disability certificate and one copy thereof in the prescribed format.

Appendix-III (Part A): Special Instructions for Candidates Regarding Conventional Papers

  • 1. Items allowed in the examination hall:
    • Only non-programmable battery-operated pocket calculators, mathematical engineering drawing instruments which include a flat scale with inches and decimal fractions of inches, and centimeter and millimeter markings, a slide rule, a set of set-squares, a protractor, a compass set, pencils, colored pencils, a map pen, an eraser, a T-square, and a drawing board as required for use. Candidates are not allowed to bring any type of table or chart into the examination hall.
  • 2. Tables to be provided by the Union Public Service Commission:
    • If deemed necessary for answering questions in a question paper, the Commission will provide the following items for reference only:
      • (i) Mathematical, Physical, Chemical, and Engineering tables (including logarithm tables).
      • (ii) Steam tables (including Mollier diagrams for temperatures up to 800 degrees Celsius and pressures up to 500 kgf/cm²).
      • (iii) National Building Code of India 1970 or 1983 Group 2 Part VI.
      • (iv) Any other specific item deemed necessary for the candidate to answer questions in the question paper. Return the above items to the invigilator after the examination.
  • 3. Writing Answers by Hand:
    • Write answers in ink by hand. Pencil may be used for maps, diagrams, or rough work.
  • 4. Checking Answer Booklet:
    • Candidates must write their roll number (not their name) only in the space provided on each answer booklet used for this purpose. Before starting to write in the answer booklet, please check that it is complete. If any pages of an answer booklet are missing, replace it. Do not tear any pages from the answer booklet. If you use more than one answer booklet, write the total number of answer booklets used on the front page of the first answer booklet. Do not leave any blank spaces between answers. If such spaces are left, cross them out.
  • 5. Evaluation of Answers:
    • Answers submitted beyond the prescribed number will not be evaluated. Candidates must compulsorily follow the instructions given on each question paper for answering questions. If answers are given for more than the prescribed number of questions, only the first answers up to the prescribed number will be evaluated. The rest will not be evaluated.
  • 6. Graph/Table Writing:
    • Candidates must write answers to questions involving graphs/tables on graph/table writing sheets provided by the invigilator on demand. Candidates must securely bind all used or unused loose sheets, such as table writing sheets, diagram sheets, graph sheets, etc., if any, with their answer booklet and additional answer booklet(s). If candidates do not follow these instructions, they will be penalized. Candidates must not write their roll number on these sheets.
  • 7. Strict Prohibition of Unfair Means:
    • A candidate shall neither copy from nor allow others to copy from another candidate's paper, nor provide any other kind of irregular assistance, nor attempt to provide assistance, nor receive assistance, nor attempt to receive assistance. It will be the responsibility of each candidate to ensure that they do not resort to unfair means.

Appendix-III (Part B): Special Instructions for Candidates Regarding Objective Papers

  • 1. Items allowed in the examination hall:

    • Clip board or hard board (nothing written on it), a good quality black ball pen for marking answers on the answer sheet, and rough work sheets to be provided by the invigilator.
  • 2. Prohibited items in the examination hall:

    • Apart from the items mentioned above, no other items such as books, notes, loose papers, electronic devices, or any other type of calculator, mathematical and drawing instruments, logarithm tables, maps, stencils, slide rules, test booklets and rough work papers related to previous session(s) should be brought into the examination hall.
    • (a) During the examination, the use of mobile phones (whether switched off or not), pagers, or any other electronic device, programmable device, storage media like pen drives, smartwatches, cameras, or Bluetooth devices, or any other related device or communication equipment, whether switched off or on, is strictly prohibited. Any violation of these instructions may lead to disciplinary action, including debarment from future examinations. Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring mobile phones/pagers or any other prohibited items to the examination venue, as their safety cannot be guaranteed.
  • 3. Penalty for Wrong Answers (Objective Type Question Paper):

    • There will be a penalty (negative marking) for wrong answers given by candidates in objective type question papers.
    • (i) For each question, there are four alternative answers. One-third (0.33) of the marks allotted to the question will be deducted as a penalty for each wrong answer given by the candidate.
    • (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer, even if one of the given answers is correct, and the same penalty as above will be applicable for that question.
    • (iii) If a candidate does not attempt a question, i.e., does not give any answer, no penalty will be imposed for that question.
  • 4. Strict Prohibition of Unfair Means:

    • No candidate shall copy from or allow others to copy from another candidate's paper, nor provide any other kind of irregular assistance, nor attempt to provide assistance, nor receive assistance, nor attempt to receive assistance.
  • 5. Conduct in the Examination Hall:

    • No candidate shall misbehave or create any disturbance in the examination hall or disturb the staff appointed by the Commission for conducting the examination. Strict penalties will be imposed for any such misconduct.

Answer Sheet Details

  • 6. (i) Candidates must write their center and subject, test booklet series (in brackets), subject code, and roll number with a black ball pen in the designated space at the top of the answer sheet. They must also code their test booklet series (A, B, C or D, as applicable), subject code, and roll number with a black ball pen in the circles provided for this purpose. Instructions for writing and coding the above details are given in the principle appendix. If the booklet does not have a printed series or the answer sheet is unnumbered, immediately report to the invigilator and replace the test booklet/answer sheet.
  • (ii) Candidates should note that any error/mistake/discrepancy in coding/filling details on the answer sheet, especially regarding the roll number and test booklet series code, will result in the rejection of the answer sheet.
  • (iii) Immediately after the examination begins, please check that the test booklet given to you does not have any unprinted, torn, or missing pages or items. If so, get it replaced with a complete test booklet of the same series and subject.
  • **7. Do not write your name or anything else other than the requested specific information on the answer sheet/test booklet/rough work sheets.
  • **8. Do not fold or damage or waste the answer sheets or put any unwanted/irrelevant marks on them. Do not write anything on the back of the answer sheet.
  • **9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated by computerized machines, candidates should exercise full care in maintaining and filling them. They must use only black ball pens to darken the circles. They must use black ball pens to write in the boxes. Since the entries filled by candidates by darkening the circles will be evaluated by computerized machines, they must fill these entries with great care and accuracy. Candidates should mark their answers on the answer sheet with a good quality black ball pen.
  • 10. Method of Marking Answers:
    • In the "objective" examination, you will not have to write answers. For each question (hereinafter referred to as item), several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as response) are given, and you have to choose one response for each item. The question paper will be in the form of a test booklet. In this booklet, responses will be marked as (A), (B), (C), and (D) below the items in numerical order 1, 2, 3... etc. Your task is to choose one correct response. If you find more than one response correct, you have to choose the best response from them.
    • In any situation, you have to choose only one response for each item. If you choose more than one response, your response will be considered wrong.
    • In the answer sheet, serial numbers 1 to 160 are printed. In front of each item (number), circles with the marks (A), (B), (C), and (D) are printed. After you have read each item in the test booklet and decided which of the given responses is correct or best, you have to darken that circle completely with a black ball pen. Do not use ink ball pen or pencil to darken the circle on the answer sheet.
    • For example, if the correct response to item 1 is (B), then you should darken the circle with the letter (B) completely with a black ball pen as shown below:
      • Example (a) • (c) (d)
  • 11. Entry in Scannable Attendance List:
    • Candidates must fill the relevant details in their column in the scannable attendance list with a black ball pen only, as shown below:

Appendix-IIA: Instructions for filling online applications for candidates

  • Candidates are required to apply online using the website www.upsconline.nic.in. The main features of the online application form system are as follows:
      1. Detailed instructions for filling the online application are available on the aforementioned website.
      1. Candidates are required to complete four stages, namely Part-I and Part-II, Part-III and Part-IV, including account creation, Universal Registration Number generation, filling the Common Application Form, and completing the exam-specific form, as per the instructions available on the above site through the drop-down menu.
      1. Candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) (except SC/ST and candidates exempted from fee payment as mentioned in Note-2 of point 4 (Fee) of the notice) by depositing cash in any branch of the State Bank of India or by using Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card/UPI payment or through the internet banking service of any bank.
      1. Before starting to fill the online application, the candidate must scan their photograph and signature in JPG format such that each file does not exceed 300KB, but the size for photograph and signature should not be less than 20KB.
      1. Before filling the application form, the candidate should keep their Matriculation certificate ready. Details provided by the candidate in the Common Application Form, such as the candidate's name, father's name, mother's name, and date of birth, must be exactly as mentioned in the Matriculation certificate.
      1. In addition, the candidate must have details of a photo identity card such as an Aadhaar Card/Voter ID Card/PAN Card/Passport/Driving License/any other photo identity card issued by the State/Central Government. While filling the Universal Registration Number (URN), the candidate must provide the details of this photo identity card. This photo identity card will be used for reference in all future matters, and candidates are advised to keep this photo identity card with them when appearing for the examination/personality test.
      1. Online application forms can be filled from 26 September 2025 to 16 October 2025 till 6:00 PM.
      1. Applicants should not fill more than one application form. However, if due to unavoidable circumstances, an applicant submits more than one application form, they must ensure that the application form with the higher RID is complete in all respects.
      1. In case of multiple application forms, only the application form with the higher RID will be considered by the Commission, and the fee paid for one RID will not be adjusted for any other RID.
      1. Applicants should ensure that they provide a valid and active e-mail ID while filling the application form, as the Commission will use electronic means to contact them at various stages of the examination process.
      1. Applicants are advised to keep checking their e-mail regularly and ensure that e-mails ending with @nic.in are directed to their inbox folder and not to their SPAM folder or any other folder.
      1. Candidates are advised to apply online within the deadline without waiting for the last date of online application.

Appendix-IIB: Important Instructions Regarding Withdrawal of Application

  • Candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their application after submission.

Appendix-III (Part A): Special Instructions for Candidates Regarding Conventional Papers

  • 1. Items allowed in the examination hall:
    • Only non-programmable battery-operated pocket calculators, mathematical engineering drawing instruments (including a flat scale with inches and decimal fractions of inches, and centimeter and millimeter markings, a slide rule, a set of set-squares, a protractor, a compass set, pencils, colored pencils, a map pen, an eraser, a T-square, and a drawing board as required for use). Candidates are not allowed to bring any type of table or chart into the examination hall.
  • 2. Tables to be provided by the Union Public Service Commission:
    • If deemed necessary for answering questions in a question paper, the Commission will provide the following items for reference only:
      • (i) Mathematical, Physical, Chemical, and Engineering tables (including logarithm tables).
      • (ii) Steam tables (including Mollier diagrams for temperatures up to 800 degrees Celsius and pressures up to 500 kgf/cm²).
      • (iii) National Building Code of India 1970 or 1983 Group 2 Part VI.
      • (iv) Any other specific item deemed necessary for the candidate to answer questions in the question paper. Return the above items to the invigilator after the examination.
  • 3. Writing Answers by Hand:
    • Write answers in ink by hand. Pencil may be used for maps, diagrams, or rough work.
  • 4. Checking Answer Booklet:
    • Candidates must write their roll number (not their name) only in the space provided on each answer booklet used for this purpose. Before starting to write in the answer booklet, please check that it is complete. If any pages of an answer booklet are missing, replace it. Do not tear any pages from the answer booklet. If you use more than one answer booklet, write the total number of answer booklets used on the front page of the first answer booklet. Do not leave any blank spaces between answers. If such spaces are left, cross them out.
  • 5. Evaluation of Answers:
    • Answers submitted beyond the prescribed number will not be evaluated. Candidates must compulsorily follow the instructions given on each question paper for answering questions. If answers are given for more than the prescribed number of questions, only the first answers up to the prescribed number will be evaluated. The rest will not be evaluated.
  • 6. Graph/Table Writing:
    • Candidates must write answers to questions involving graphs/tables on graph/table writing sheets provided by the invigilator on demand. Candidates must securely bind all used or unused loose sheets, such as table writing sheets, diagram sheets, graph sheets, etc., if any, with their answer booklet and additional answer booklet(s). If candidates do not follow these instructions, they will be penalized. Candidates must not write their roll number on these sheets.
  • 7. Strict Prohibition of Unfair Means:
    • A candidate shall neither copy from nor allow others to copy from another candidate's paper, nor provide any other kind of irregular assistance, nor attempt to provide assistance, nor receive assistance, nor attempt to receive assistance. It will be the responsibility of each candidate to ensure that they do not resort to unfair means.

Appendix-III (Part B): Special Instructions for Candidates Regarding Objective Papers

  • 1. Items allowed in the examination hall:

    • Clip board or hard board (nothing written on it), a good quality black ball pen for marking answers on the answer sheet, and rough work sheets to be provided by the invigilator.
  • 2. Prohibited items in the examination hall:

    • Apart from the items mentioned above, no other items such as books, notes, loose papers, electronic devices, or any other type of calculator, mathematical and drawing instruments, logarithm tables, maps, stencils, slide rules, test booklets and rough work papers related to previous session(s) should be brought into the examination hall.
    • (a) During the examination, the use of mobile phones (whether switched off or not), pagers, or any other electronic device, programmable device, storage media like pen drives, smartwatches, cameras, or Bluetooth devices, or any other related device or communication equipment, whether switched off or on, is strictly prohibited. Any violation of these instructions may lead to disciplinary action, including debarment from future examinations. Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring mobile phones/pagers or any other prohibited items to the examination venue, as their safety cannot be guaranteed.
  • 3. Penalty for Wrong Answers (Objective Type Question Paper):

    • There will be a penalty (negative marking) for wrong answers given by candidates in objective type question papers.
    • (i) For each question, there are four alternative answers. One-third (0.33) of the marks allotted to the question will be deducted as a penalty for each wrong answer given by the candidate.
    • (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer, even if one of the given answers is correct, and the same penalty as above will be applicable for that question.
    • (iii) If a candidate does not attempt a question, i.e., does not give any answer, no penalty will be imposed for that question.
  • 4. Strict Prohibition of Unfair Means:

    • No candidate shall copy from or allow others to copy from another candidate's paper, nor provide any other kind of irregular assistance, nor attempt to provide assistance, nor receive assistance, nor attempt to receive assistance.
  • 5. Conduct in the Examination Hall:

    • No candidate shall misbehave or create any disturbance in the examination hall or disturb the staff appointed by the Commission for conducting the examination. Strict penalties will be imposed for any such misconduct.

Answer Sheet Details

  • 6. (i) Candidates must write their center and subject, test booklet series (in brackets), subject code, and roll number with a black ball pen in the designated space at the top of the answer sheet. They must also code their test booklet series (A, B, C or D, as applicable), subject code, and roll number with a black ball pen in the circles provided for this purpose. Instructions for writing and coding the above details are given in the principle appendix. If the booklet does not have a printed series or the answer sheet is unnumbered, immediately report to the invigilator and replace the test booklet/answer sheet.
  • (ii) Candidates should note that any error/mistake/discrepancy in coding/filling details on the answer sheet, especially regarding the roll number and test booklet series code, will result in the rejection of the answer sheet.
  • (iii) Immediately after the examination begins, please check that the test booklet given to you does not have any unprinted, torn, or missing pages or items. If so, get it replaced with a complete test booklet of the same series and subject.
  • **7. Do not write your name or anything else other than the requested specific information on the answer sheet/test booklet/rough work sheets.
  • **8. Do not fold or damage or waste the answer sheets or put any unwanted/irrelevant marks on them. Do not write anything on the back of the answer sheet.
  • **9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated by computerized machines, candidates should exercise full care in maintaining and filling them. They must use only black ball pens to darken the circles. They must use black ball pens to write in the boxes. Since the entries filled by candidates by darkening the circles will be evaluated by computerized machines, they must fill these entries with great care and accuracy. Candidates should mark their answers on the answer sheet with a good quality black ball pen.
  • 10. Method of Marking Answers:
    • In the "objective" examination, you will not have to write answers. For each question (hereinafter referred to as item), several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as response) are given, and you have to choose one response for each item. The question paper will be in the form of a test booklet. In this booklet, responses will be marked as (A), (B), (C), and (D) below the items in numerical order 1, 2, 3... etc. Your task is to choose one correct response. If you find more than one response correct, you have to choose the best response from them.
    • In any situation, you have to choose only one response for each item. If you choose more than one response, your response will be considered wrong.
    • For example, if the correct response to item 1 is (B), then you should darken the circle with the letter (B) completely with a black ball pen as shown below:
      • Example (a) • (c) (d)
  • 11. Entry in Scannable Attendance List:
    • Candidates must fill the relevant details in their column in the scannable attendance list with a black ball pen only, as shown below:

Appendix-IV: Certificate Regarding Inability to Write by the Candidate for Examination

  • This certificate is for PwBD candidates and must be issued by a medical authority (e.g., Ophthalmologist for visual impairment, Orthopedic specialist/PMR for locomotor disability). It certifies that the candidate is unable to write due to their disability.

Appendix-V: Undertaking for Bringing Own Scribe

  • This undertaking is to be submitted online by the candidate, stating their name, roll number, examination center, district, state, and educational qualification. It also includes an undertaking that the scribe's educational qualification is not higher than the candidate's.

Appendix-VI: Certificate for Persons with Specified Disabilities but less than 40% and Writing Difficulty

  • This certificate is for individuals with specified disabilities as per Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016, but less than 40% as per Section 2(r), who have writing difficulties. It certifies the nature and extent of disability, the need for a scribe, and the use of assistive devices. It is valid for a maximum of six months.

Appendix-VII: Undertaking for Persons with Specified Disabilities but less than 40% and Writing Difficulty

  • This is an undertaking by the candidate, confirming their disability, examination details, and educational qualification. It includes an undertaking to provide a scribe and states that the candidate will not use their scribe's higher qualification for the position if the scribe's qualification is found to be higher than declared.

13. Withdrawal of Applications

  • Candidates are not permitted to withdraw their application after submission.

Appendix-I: Section I - Scheme of Examination

  • 1. The examination will be conducted according to the following scheme:
    • (i) Stage-I: Engineering Services (Preliminary/Stage-I) Examination (Objective type papers) for selection of candidates for the Engineering Services (Main/Stage-II) Examination;
    • (ii) Stage-II: Engineering Services (Main/Stage-II) Examination (Conventional type papers); and
    • (iii) Stage-III: Personality Test.
  • 2. Engineering Services (Preliminary/Stage-I) Examination will consist of two objective type papers (multiple choice answers) with a maximum of 500 marks (Paper-I: 200 marks and Paper-II: 300 marks).
    • Only those candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission in the Preliminary Examination of the concerned year will be eligible for admission to the Main/Stage-II Examination, provided they are otherwise eligible for admission to the Main/Stage-II Examination. The marks obtained by the candidates who are declared qualified for admission to the Main/Stage-II Examination will be counted for determining their final merit list. The number of candidates admitted to the Main/Stage-II Examination through this examination will be approximately six to seven times the total estimated vacancies.
  • Note - I: The list of candidates qualified by the Commission for the Engineering Services (Main/Stage-II) Examination will be prepared based on the minimum qualifying marks in General Studies and Engineering Aptitude Paper (Paper-I) and Engineering Subject Specific Paper (Paper-II).
  • Note - II: There will be a penalty (negative marking) for wrong answers marked by candidates in objective type question papers.
    • (i) For each question, there are four alternative answers. One-third (0.33) of the marks allotted to the question will be deducted as a penalty for each wrong answer given by the candidate.
    • (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer, even if one of the given answers is correct, and the same penalty as above will be applicable for that question.
    • (iii) If a candidate does not attempt a question, i.e., does not give any answer, no penalty will be imposed for that question.
  • 3. Candidates should note that if any irrelevant item/mark/number, etc., which is not related to any question answer and/or has the potential to reveal the candidate's identity, is found written in the answer script(s), the Commission will impose a penalty of deduction of marks from their total obtained marks or consider them guilty for this or reject the said script(s) for evaluation.
  • 4.1 The Engineering Services (Main/Stage-II) Examination will consist of two conventional type papers of Engineering Aptitude, each with a time limit of three hours and a maximum of 600 marks (300 marks per paper).
  • 4.2 Stage-III will consist of a Personality Test for 200 marks.
  • 5.1 Candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks prescribed by the Commission at its discretion in Stage-I: Engineering Services (Preliminary/Stage-I) Examination and Stage-II: Engineering Services (Main/Stage-II) Examination will be called for Stage-III (Personality Test). The number of candidates called for the Personality Test will be approximately twice the number of vacancies. The Personality Test will be for 200 marks (no minimum qualifying marks).
  • 5.2 The final rank will be determined based on the marks obtained by candidates in Stage-I: (Preliminary/Stage-I) Engineering Services Examination, Stage-II: (Main/Stage-II) Engineering Services Examination, and Stage-III (Personality Test). Services/posts will be allotted to candidates based on their rank and the preferences given by them for various services/posts.
  • 6. Candidates are advised to carefully read the special instructions regarding filling answer sheets for conventional type question papers and objective type question papers, uploaded on the Commission's website (www.upsc.gov.in) on 26.09.2025, in Appendix-III (Part A and Part B).
  • 7. During the Personality Test, the candidate's leadership ability, initiative, intellectual acumen, social skills, other social qualities, mental and physical energy, power of practical application, and integrity of character will be specially assessed.
  • 8. Answers to conventional question papers should be given in English. Question papers will be in English only.
  • 9. The detailed syllabus for Stage-I (Preliminary/Stage-I) and Stage-II (Main/Stage-II) is given in Section-III.

Section-II

A. Stage-I: (Preliminary/Stage-I) Examination

  • This examination will have two papers.
Subject Duration Maximum Marks
Category I - Civil Engineering
Paper-I (General Studies & Engg. Aptitude) 2 hours 200
Paper-II (Civil Engineering) 3 hours 300
Total 500
Category II - Mechanical Engineering
Paper-I (General Studies & Engg. Aptitude) 2 hours 200
Paper-II (Mechanical Engineering) 3 hours 300
Total 500
Category III - Electrical Engineering
Paper-I (General Studies & Engg. Aptitude) 2 hours 200
Paper-II (Electrical Engineering) 3 hours 300
Total 500
Category IV - Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering
Paper-I (General Studies & Engg. Aptitude) 2 hours 200
Paper-II (Electronics & Telecommunication Engg.) 3 hours 300
Total 500
  • (iii) Detailed syllabus is given in Section-III.

B. Stage-II: (Main/Stage-II) Examination

  • This examination will have two papers.
Subject Duration Maximum Marks
Category I - Civil Engineering
Paper-I (Civil Engineering) 3 hours 300
Paper-II (Civil Engineering) 3 hours 300
Total 600
Category II - Mechanical Engineering
Paper-I (Mechanical Engineering) 3 hours 300
Paper-II (Mechanical Engineering) 3 hours 300
Total 600
Category III - Electrical Engineering
Paper-I (Electrical Engineering) 3 hours 300
Paper-II (Electrical Engineering) 3 hours 300
Total 600
Category IV - Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering
Paper-I (Electronics & Telecommunication Engg.) 3 hours 300
Paper-II (Electronics & Telecommunication Engg.) 3 hours 300
Total 600

C. Stage-III (Personality Test): 200 Marks

  • Note - I: Candidates must write their own answers to the questions. Under no circumstances will they be allowed to use the help of a scribe to write their answers. However, candidates with benchmark disabilities in the 'Low Vision' category may avail the facility of a scribe. Other candidates with benchmark disabilities under the RPwD Act, 2016 (R) may avail the facility of a scribe if the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a government medical institution certifies that the concerned person is physically unable to write and requires a scribe for the examination (using Proforma Appendix-IV).
    • Additionally, persons with specific disabilities who fall under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016, but not under Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e., persons with less than 40% disability and who have difficulty in writing, will be provided compensatory time, subject to a certificate from the competent medical authority of a government health institution as per the Proforma given in Appendix-VI, stating that the concerned person has difficulty in writing and a scribe is mandatory for them to write the examination.
  • Note - 2: Candidates will have the option to bring their own scribe or request the Commission for a scribe. Scribe details must be provided in the online application form as per Proforma Appendix-V, whether the scribe is from the Commission or brought by the candidate themselves.
  • Note - 3: The qualification of the scribe provided by the Commission should not be higher than the minimum qualification prescribed for the examination, although their qualification should always be 10th standard or higher.
  • Note - 4: Candidates with benchmark disabilities in the 'Low Vision' category will be given an additional 20 minutes per hour of examination time. Other candidates with benchmark disabilities will also be given this facility only if the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a government health care institution certifies, as per Proforma Appendix-IV, that the concerned person is physically unable to write.

Section-III: Standard and Syllabus

  • The standard of the General Studies and Engineering Aptitude (Preliminary/Stage-I Examination) paper will be as expected from an Engineering/Science graduate. The standard of question papers for other subjects will be equivalent to an Engineering degree level examination of an Indian University. There will be no practical examination in any subject.

General Studies and Engineering Aptitude Paper (Preliminary/Stage-I, Paper-I, Objective, Common for all candidates)

  1. Current issues of national and international importance relating to Social, Economic and Industrial Development.
  2. Engineering Aptitude covering Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability.
  3. Engineering Mathematics and Numerical Analysis.
  4. General Principles of Design, Drawing, Importance of Safety.
  5. Standards and Quality practices in production, construction, maintenance and services.
  6. Basics of Energy and Environment: Conservation, environmental pollution & degradation, Climate Change, Environmental Impact Assessment.
  7. Basics of Project Management.
  8. Basics of Material Science and Engineering.
  9. Information & Communication Technologies (ICT) based tools & their applications in Engineering such as Networking, e-Governance & Technology based education.
  10. Ethics and values in Engineering profession.
  • Note: The General Studies and Engineering Aptitude paper will include knowledge of relevant subjects, which may be expected from an Engineering graduate without special study. Questions will be set from all 10 topics mentioned above. Each topic will have questions worth 5% to 15% of the total marks.

Branch/Subject: Civil Engineering

  • Combined Syllabus for Preliminary/Stage-I Examination Objective Type Paper-II (which includes syllabus for both papers) and Separate Syllabus for Main/Stage-II Examination Conventional Type Paper-I and Paper-II.
Paper-I
  1. Building Materials: Stones, Lime, Glass, Plastics, Steel, FRP, Ceramics, Aluminium, Fly Ash, Basic Admixtures, Timber, Bricks, Aggregates: Classification, properties, and selection criteria. Cement: Types, composition, properties, uses, and various tests; Lime and Cement Mortars and Concrete: Properties and various tests; Design of Concrete Mixes: Proportioning of components and mix design method.
  2. Solid Mechanics: Elastic constants, stress, two-dimensional stress, strain, two-dimensional strain, Mohr's circle of stress and strain, elastic theories of failure, principal stress, bending, shear, and torsion.
  3. Structural Analysis: Basic concepts of strength of materials, types of stresses and strains, bending moment and shear force, concepts of bending and shear stresses; Analysis of determinate and indeterminate structures, trusses, beams, plane frames; Oscillation loads, influence lines, unit load method, and other methods; Free and forced vibration of single and multiple degree-of-freedom systems; Suspended cables; Concepts and application of computer-aided design.
  4. Design of Steel Structures: Principles of working stress method, design of tension and compression members, design of beams and beam-column connections, built-up sections, girders, industrial roofs, principles of ultimate load design.
  5. Design of Concrete and Masonry Structures: Limit state design; Design of beams, slabs, lintels, foundations, retaining walls, stairs; Pre-stressed concrete with materials and methods; Principles of design of masonry structures; Earthquake resistant design of structures.
  6. Construction Practice, Planning and Management: Construction - planning, equipment, site inspection and management, including network analysis for assessment and various types of work using modern management tools; Analysis of rates for various types of work; Tender process and contract management, quality control, productivity, operational costs; Land acquisition; Worker safety and welfare.
Paper-II
  1. Fluid Flow, Hydraulic Machines and Hydropower:
    • (a) Fluid Mechanics, Open Channel Flow, Pipe Flow:
      • Fluid properties; Dimensional analysis and modeling; Fluid kinematics and fluid dynamics including measurement; Flow nets; Viscosity, boundary layer and control, drag, lift, principles of open channel flow, flow control, hydraulic jump; Surge; Pipe networks.
    • (b) Hydraulic Machines and Hydropower:
      • Various pumps, air vessels, hydraulic turbines - types, classification, and performance criteria; Powerhouse - classification and layout, storage, water conservation, supply control.
  2. Hydrology and Water Resources Engineering:
    • Hydrological cycle, groundwater hydrology, well hydrology and analysis of related data; Streams and their measurement (gauging); River morphology; Flood, drought, and their management; Reservoir capacity. Water Resources Engineering: Multipurpose use of water; River basins and their capacity; Assessment of water demand - storage and its benefits, watershed, canal, and drainage design; Barrages, weirs, energy dissipators, head works and design of canal, construction, and maintenance; Rainfall measurement and its analysis.
  3. Environmental Engineering:
    • (a) Water Supply Engineering:
      • Sources, assessment, quality standards, and testing and treatment of water; Rural, institutional, and industrial water supply; Physical, chemical, and biological characteristics of water, pollutants in water and their effects, assessment of water demand; Drinking water standards, water treatment plants, water distribution network.
    • (b) Wastewater Engineering:
      • Planning and design of domestic wastewater, collection, and disposal of sewage; Plumbing systems. Components and layout of sewage system; Planning and design of domestic wastewater disposal system; Sludge management, including treatment, disposal, and reuse of treated effluents; Effluent treatment plants, including institutional and industrial wastewater management.
    • (c) Solid Waste Management:
      • Sources and classification of solid waste, including planning and design of its management system; Disposal system, beneficial aspects of waste, and its use by civil engineers.
    • (d) Air, Noise Pollution and Ecology:
      • Concepts and general working methods.
  4. Geo-technical Engineering and Foundation Engineering:
    • (a) Geo-technical Engineering:
      • Soil exploration - planning and methods, soil properties, classification, various tests, and interrelationships; Specific permeability and seepage, compressibility, compaction, and shear resistance; Soil pressure (earth pressure) theory and stress distribution in soil, properties and use of geosynthetics.
    • (b) Foundation Engineering:
      • Types and selection criteria of foundations, bearing capacity, settlement analysis, design and testing of shallow and deep foundations; Slope stability analysis, earthen embankments, dams, and soil retaining structures: Types, analysis, and design, ground modification principles.
  5. Surveying and Geology:
    • (a) Surveying:
      • Classification of surveys, various methods, instruments for measuring distances, heights, and directions, and their analysis; Field astronomy, Global Positioning System; Map making; Photogrammetry; Remote sensing concepts; Survey alignment for culverts, canals, bridges, roads/railways, and buildings, setting out curves.
    • (b) Geology:
      • Basic knowledge of Engineering Geology and its application in projects.
  6. Transportation Engineering:
    • Highways - planning and construction methods, alignment, and geometric design; Traffic surveys and control; Principles of flexible and rigid pavement design.
    • Tunnel Construction (Tunneling) - alignment, construction method, debris disposal, drainage, lighting, and ventilation.
    • Railway Systems - terminology, planning, design, and maintenance methods; Modernization of tracks.
    • Ports - terminology, layout, and planning.
    • Airports - layout, planning, and design.

Branch/Subject: Mechanical Engineering

  • Combined Syllabus for Preliminary/Stage-I Examination Objective Type Paper-II (which includes syllabus for both papers) and Separate Syllabus for Main/Stage-II Examination Conventional Type Paper-I and Paper-II.
Paper-I
  1. Fluid Mechanics:
    • Basic concepts and properties of fluids, manometry, fluid statics, buoyancy, equations of motion, Bernoulli's equation and its applications, viscous flow of incompressible fluids, laminar and turbulent flow, flow through pipes, and head loss in pipes.
  2. Thermodynamics and Heat Transfer:
    • Thermodynamic systems and processes; Properties of pure substances, zeroth, first, and second laws of thermodynamics; Entropy; Irreversibility and availability; Analysis of thermodynamic cycles related to energy conversion: Rankine, Otto, Diesel, and Dual cycles; Ideal and real gases; Compressibility factor; Gas mixtures.
    • Heat transfer mechanisms, steady and unsteady heat flow, thermal resistance, fins, free and forced convection, correlations for convective heat transfer, radiative heat transfer - radiative heat transfer coefficients; Boiling and condensation, heat exchanger performance analysis.
  3. IC Engines, Refrigeration, and Air Conditioning:
    • SI and CI engines, engine systems and components, performance properties and testing of IC engines; Fuels; Emissions and emission control. Vapor compression refrigeration, refrigerants and working cycles, compressors, condensers, evaporators, and expansion devices, other types of refrigeration systems like vapor absorption, vapor jet, thermal power, and vortex tube refrigeration. Psychrometric properties and processes, comfort chart, comfort, and industrial air conditioning, load calculation, and heat pump.
  4. Turbo Machinery:
    • Reciprocating and rotary pumps, Pelton wheel, Kaplan, and Francis turbines, velocity diagrams, impulse and reaction principles, jet propulsion principles - pulse jet and ramjet engines, reciprocating and rotary compressors - principles and applications.
  5. Power Plant Engineering:
    • Rankine and Brayton cycle regeneration and reheat, fuels and their properties, flue gas analysis, boilers, steam turbines and other components of power plants like condensers, exhausters, electrostatic precipitators, and cooling towers - their principles, design, types, and applications.
  6. Renewable Energy Sources:
    • Solar radiation, solar thermal energy storage - flat plate and focusing collectors - their materials and performance. Solar thermal energy storage, applications - heating, cooling, and power generation; Solar photovoltaic conversion; Wind energy utilization, biomass, and tidal energy methods and applications, practical principles of energy cells.
Paper-II
  1. Engineering Mechanics:
    • Analysis of force systems, friction, centroid and center of gravity, kinetics, stress and strain - combined stress and strain, bending moment and shear force diagrams, bending stress-gradient and principle of bending stress, thin and thick cylinders/spheres.
  2. Engineering Materials:
    • Basic crystallography, alloys and phase diagrams, heat treatment, ferrous and non-ferrous metals, non-metallic materials, basic elements of nano-materials, mechanical properties and testing, corrosion prevention and control.
  3. Mechanisms and Machines:
    • Types of kinematics, coupling, mobility, inversion, kinematic analysis, velocity and acceleration analysis of planar mechanisms, cams with uniform acceleration and deceleration, cycloidal motion, free and forced vibration of un-damped and damped SDOF systems, transmission systems, vibration isolation, critical speed of shafts - geometry of tooth profile, gearing principles, involute profile, interference, cycloidal, spiral, and worm gears, gear trains - simple, compound, and epicyclic; Kinematic analysis - slider-crank mechanism, turning moment calculation, balancing of rotating and reciprocating masses, gyroscopic - automobiles, ships, and aircraft, gyroscopic couple on controller.
  4. Design of Machine Elements:
    • Design of static and dynamic loads, fracture theory, fatigue strength and S-N diagram, principles of design of machine elements like riveted, welded, and bolted joints, shafts, spur gears, rolling and sliding contact bearings, brakes and clutches, flywheels.
  5. Manufacturing, Industrial and Maintenance Engineering:
    • Metal casting - metal forming, metal joining, machining and machine tool operations, metrology and inspection, computer-integrated manufacturing, FMS, production planning and control, inventory control and operations research - CPM-PERT, fracture concepts and characteristic reliability, fracture analysis, machine vibrations, data acquisition, fault detection, vibration monitoring, rotor field balancing, noise monitoring, wear and debris analysis, signature analysis, NDT methods in condition monitoring.
  6. Mechatronics and Robotics:
    • Microprocessor and microcontroller, architecture, programming, I/O, computer interfacing, programmable logic controller, sensors and actuators, piezoelectric accelerometer, Hall effect sensors, optical encoders, resolvers, inductosyn, pneumatic and hydraulic actuators, stepper motors, control systems - mathematical model of physical systems, control signals, controllability and observability, robotics, robot classification, robot specification, symbolization, direct and inverse kinematics, homogeneous coordinates and four-axis arm equation, SCARA robot.

Branch/Subject: Electrical Engineering

  • Combined Syllabus for Preliminary/Stage-I Examination Objective Type Paper-II (which includes syllabus for both papers) and Separate Syllabus for Main/Stage-II Examination Conventional Type Paper-I and Paper-II.
Paper-I
  1. Engineering Mathematics:
    • Matrix theory, Eigenvalues and Eigenvectors, systems of linear equations, numerical methods for solving non-linear algebraic equations and differential equations, integral calculus, partial derivatives, maxima and minima, line, surface, and volume integrals. Fourier series, linear, non-linear, and partial differential equations, initial and finite value problems, complex variables, Taylor and Laurent series, residue theorem, basic principles of probability and statistics, sampling theory, random variables, normal and Poisson distributions, correlation and regression analysis.
  2. Electrical Materials:
    • Electrical engineering materials, crystal structure and defects, ceramic materials, insulating materials, magnetic materials - basic principles, properties, and applications; Ferrite ferromagnetic materials and components; Basic principles of solid-state physics; Conductors; Photoconductivity; Basic principles of nano-materials and superconductors.
  3. Electric Circuits and Fields:
    • Circuit elements, network graph, KCL, KVL, node and mesh analysis, ideal voltage and current sources, Thevenin, Norton, superposition, and maximum power transfer theorems, transient response of DC and AC networks, sinusoidal steady-state analysis, basic filter concepts, two-port networks, three-phase circuits, magnetically coupled circuits, Gauss's law, electric field and potential due to point, line, plane, and spherical charge distributions, Ampere's and Biot-Savart's laws; Inductance, dielectric capacitance; Maxwell's equations.
  4. Electrical and Electronic Measurements:
    • Principles of measurement, accuracy, precision, and standards; Bridges and potentiometers; Moving coil, moving iron, dynamometer, and induction type instruments; Measurement of voltage, current, power, energy, and power factor, instrument transformers, digital voltmeter and multimeter, phase, time, and frequency measurement, Q-meter, oscilloscopes, potentiometric recorders, fault analysis, sensors, basic principles of transducers, data acquisition systems.
  5. Computer Fundamentals:
    • Number systems, Boolean algebra, arithmetic operations, basic architecture, Central Processing Unit, I/O and memory organization, peripheral devices, data representation and operating system fundamentals, networking, real memory, file system, programming language elements, typical examples.
  6. Basic Electronics Engineering:
    • Semiconductors, basic elements and characteristics of diodes and transistors, junction and field effect transistors (BJTs, FETs, and MOSFETs), various types of transistor amplifiers, equivalent circuits and frequency response, oscillators, and other circuits, feedback amplifiers.
Paper-II
  1. Analog and Digital Electronics:
    • Operational amplifiers - characteristics and applications, combinational and sequential logic circuits, multiplexers, multivibrators, sample and hold circuits, A/D and D/A converters, basic elements and applications of filter circuits, common active filters, basic elements of microprocessors - interfacing and applications, basic elements of linear integrated circuits, basic elements of analog communication, modulation and demodulation, noise and bandwidth, signal-to-noise ratio, basic elements of digital communication, sampling, quantization, coding, frequency, and time domain multiplexing, power line carrier communication systems.
  2. Systems and Signal Processing:
    • Representation of continuous and discrete-time signals, shifting and scaling operations, linear time-invariant and causal systems, Fourier series representation of continuous periodic signals, sampling theorem, Fourier and Laplace transforms, FFT, linear convolution, discrete cosine transform, FIR filters, IIR filters, bilinear transformation.
  3. Control Systems:
    • Principles of feedback, transfer function, block diagrams, and signal flow graphs, steady-state errors, root locus, Routh-Hurwitz criterion, Nyquist technique, Bode plots, lead, lag, and lead-lag compensation, stability analysis, transient and frequency response analysis, state-space model, state variation representation, control and observation, linear state-variable feedback, PID, and industrial controllers.
  4. Electrical Machines:
    • Single-phase transformers, three-phase transformers - connection, parallel operation, auto-transformers, energy conversion principles, DC machines - types, windings, generator characteristics, armature reaction, and commutation, motor starting and speed control, induction motors - principles, types, performance characteristics, starting and speed control, synchronous machines - performance, regulation, parallel operation of generators, motor starting, characteristics and applications, servo, and stepper motors.
  5. Power Systems:
    • Basic concepts of power generation, steam, gas, and hydro turbines, transmission line models and performance, cable performance, insulation, corona, and radio interference, power factor correction, symmetrical components, fault analysis, basic principles of protection systems, solid-state relays, and digital protection, circuit breakers, radial and ring - main distribution systems, matrix representation of power systems, load flow analysis, voltage control and economic operation, system stability concepts, swing curves, and similar criteria, HVDC transmission and FACTS concepts, power system dynamics concepts, distributed generation, solar and wind power, smart grid concepts, environmental impact, basic principles of power economics.
  6. Power Electronics and Drives:
    • Semiconductor power diodes, transistors, thyristors, triacs, GTOs, MOSFETs, and IGBTs - static characteristics and operating principles, triggering circuits, phase-controlled rectifiers, bridge converters - fully controlled and half-controlled, principles of choppers and inverters, basic concepts of adjustable speed DC and AC drives, DC-AC switched mode converters, high resonant converters, high frequency inductors and transformers, power supply.

Branch/Subject: Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering

  • Combined Syllabus for Preliminary/Stage-I Examination Objective Type Paper-II (which includes syllabus for both papers) and Separate Syllabus for Main/Stage-II Examination Conventional Type Paper-I and Paper-II.
Paper-I
  1. Basic Electronics Engineering:
    • Basic elements of semiconductors; Diodes; Basic elements and characteristics of transistors; Diodes for various applications; Junction and Field Effect Transistors (BJTs, JFETs, MOSFETs); Various types of transistor amplifiers, oscillators, and other circuits; Basic elements of integrated circuits (ICs); Bipolar, MOS, and CMOS ICs; Basic elements of linear ICs, operational amplifiers and their applications - linear/non-linear; Optical sources/detectors; Basic elements of optoelectronics and its applications.
  2. Basic Electrical Engineering:
    • DC Circuits - Ohm's and Kirchhoff's laws, mesh and nodal analysis, circuit theorems; Electro-magnetism, Faraday's and Lenz's laws, induced EMF and its applications; Single-phase AC circuits; Transformers, efficiency; Basic elements - DC machines, induction machines, and synchronous machines; Basic elements of electrical energy sources - hydro, thermal, nuclear, wind, solar; Basic elements of batteries and their applications.
  3. Materials Science:
    • Electrical engineering materials; Crystal structures and defects; Ceramic materials - structure, compounds, processing, and applications; Insulating laminates for electronics, structure, properties, and applications; Magnetic materials, basic elements, classification, ferrites, ferro, para-magnetic materials, and components; Nano-materials - basic elements, fabrication, purification, sintering, nanoparticles and their applications; Nano-optical/magnetic/electronic materials and applications; Superconductivity, applications.
  4. Electronic Measurements and Principles of Measurement:
    • Principles of measurement, accuracy, precision, and standards, analog and digital systems for measurement, measuring instruments for various applications, static/dynamic characteristics of measurement systems, errors, statistical analysis and curve fitting, measurement systems for non-electrical quantities; Basic elements of telemetry; Basic elements of transducers and display, data acquisition systems.
  5. Network Theory:
    • Network diagrams and matrices, Y-Delta transformation; Linear time-invariant equivalent circuits for RLC circuits; Time domain analysis of RLC circuits using Laplace transforms - solution of network equivalences; Two-port network parameters - driving point and transfer functions; State space equivalence for networks; Sinusoidal steady-state analysis.
  6. Analog and Digital Circuits:
    • Small signal equivalent circuits of diodes, BJTs, and FETs; Diode circuits for various applications; Biasing and stability of BJT and JFET amplifier circuits; Analysis/design of amplifiers - single/multi-stage; Feedback and applications; Active filters, timers, multipliers, wave shaping, A/D-D/A converters; Boolean algebra and applications; Logic gates, digital IC families, combinational/sequential circuits; Basic elements of multiplexers, counters/registers/memories/microprocessors, design, and applications.
Paper-II
  1. Analog and Digital Communication Systems:
    • Random signals, noise, probability theory, information theory, analog versus digital communication and applications: System-AM, FM, Transmitters/Receivers, principles/methods/standards, SNR comparison; Digital communication fundamentals: Sampling, Quantization, Coding, PCM, DPCM, Multiplexing - audio/video; Digital Modulation: ASK, FSK, PSK; Various access methods; TDMA, FDMA, CDMA; Optical communication; Fiber optics, principles/methods/standards.
  2. Control Systems:
    • Classification of signals and systems; Application of signal and system theory; System perception; Transformers and their applications; Signal flow graphs, Routh-Hurwitz criterion, root locus, Nyquist/Bode plots; Feedback systems - open and closed loop types, stability analysis, steady-state, transient, and frequency response analysis; Design of control systems, compensators, elements of lead/lag compensation, PID, and industrial controllers.
  3. Computer Organization and Architecture:
    • Basic architecture, CPU, I/O organization, memory organization, peripheral devices, trends; Hardware/software issues; Data representation and programming; Operating system fundamentals, processes, features, applications; Memory management, virtual memory, file system, protection and security; Databases, various types, features, and design; Transaction and concurrency control; Programming language elements; Specific examples.
  4. Electromagnetics:
    • Elements of vector calculus, Maxwell's equations - basic concepts; Gauss's, Stokes' theorems, wave propagation through various media; Transmission lines - various types, basic elements, Smith chart, impedance matching/transformation, S-parameters, pulse excitation, applications; Waveguides - basic, rectangular types, modes, cut-off frequency, dispersion, dielectric types; Antennas - radiation pattern, monopole/dipole, gain, arrays - active/passive, principles, applications.
  5. Advanced Electronics Topics:
    • VLSI technology; Processing, lithography, interconnects, packaging, testing; VLSI design: Principles, MUX/ROM/PLA-based design, Moore's and Miller's circuit design: Pipeline concept and functions; Design for testability, examples; DSP: Discrete-time signals/systems; Applications; Digital filters: FIR/IIR types, design, speech/audio/radar signal processing, applications; Microprocessors and microcontrollers, basic elements, interrupts, DMA, instruction sets, interfacing; Controllers and applications; Embedded systems.
  6. Advanced Communication Topics:
    • Communication networks: Principles/behavior/technology/applications/OSI model/security; Basic packet multi-branch/scheduling; Cellular networks, types, analysis, protocols (TCP/TCPIP); Microwave and satellite communication: Terrestrial/ground type LOS systems, block schematic link calculation, system design; Communication satellite, scope, features, systems, applications; Fiber-optic communication systems, block schematic, link calculation, system design.

Appendix-IIA: Instructions for Candidates to Fill Online Applications

  • Candidates are required to apply online using the website www.upsconline.nic.in. The main features of the online application form system are as follows:
    1. Detailed instructions for filling the online application are available on the aforementioned website.
    2. Candidates are required to complete four stages, namely Part-I and Part-II, Part-III and Part-IV, including account creation, Universal Registration Number generation, filling the Common Application Form, and completing the exam-specific form, as per the instructions available on the above site through the drop-down menu.
    3. Candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) (except SC/ST and candidates exempted from fee payment as mentioned in Note-2 of point 4 (Fee) of the notice) by depositing cash in any branch of the State Bank of India or by using Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card/UPI payment or through the internet banking service of any bank.
    4. Before starting to fill the online application, the candidate must scan their photograph and signature in JPG format such that each file does not exceed 300KB, but the size for photograph and signature should not be less than 20KB.
    5. Before filling the application form, the candidate should keep their Matriculation certificate ready. Details provided by the candidate in the Common Application Form, such as the candidate's name, father's name, mother's name, and date of birth, must be exactly as mentioned in the Matriculation certificate.
    6. In addition, the candidate must have details of a photo identity card such as an Aadhaar Card/Voter ID Card/PAN Card/Passport/Driving License/any other photo identity card issued by the State/Central Government. While filling the Universal Registration Number (URN), the candidate must provide the details of this photo identity card. This photo identity card will be used for reference in all future matters, and candidates are advised to keep this photo identity card with them when appearing for the examination/personality test.
    7. Online application forms can be filled from 26 September 2025 to 16 October 2025 till 6:00 PM.
    8. Applicants should not fill more than one application form. However, if due to unavoidable circumstances, an applicant submits more than one application form, they must ensure that the application form with the higher RID is complete in all respects.
    9. In case of multiple application forms, only the application form with the higher RID will be considered by the Commission, and the fee paid for one RID will not be adjusted for any other RID.
    10. Applicants should ensure that they provide a valid and active e-mail ID while filling the application form, as the Commission will use electronic means to contact them at various stages of the examination process.
    11. Applicants are advised to keep checking their e-mail regularly and ensure that e-mails ending with @nic.in are directed to their inbox folder and not to their SPAM folder or any other folder.
    12. Candidates are advised to apply online within the deadline without waiting for the last date of online application.

Appendix-IIB: Important Instructions Regarding Withdrawal of Application

  • Candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their application after submission.

Appendix-III (Part A): Special Instructions for Candidates Regarding Conventional Papers

  • 1. Items allowed in the examination hall:
    • Only non-programmable battery-operated pocket calculators, mathematical engineering drawing instruments which include a flat scale with inches and decimal fractions of inches, and centimeter and millimeter markings, a slide rule, a set of set-squares, a protractor, a compass set, pencils, colored pencils, a map pen, an eraser, a T-square, and a drawing board as required for use. Candidates are not allowed to bring any type of table or chart into the examination hall.
  • 2. Tables to be provided by the Union Public Service Commission:
    • If deemed necessary for answering questions in a question paper, the Commission will provide the following items for reference only:
      • (i) Mathematical, Physical, Chemical, and Engineering tables (including logarithm tables).
      • (ii) Steam tables (including Mollier diagrams for temperatures up to 800 degrees Celsius and pressures up to 500 kgf/cm²).
      • (iii) National Building Code of India 1970 or 1983 Group 2 Part VI.
      • (iv) Any other specific item deemed necessary for the candidate to answer questions in the question paper. Return the above items to the invigilator after the examination.
  • 3. Writing Answers by Hand:
    • Write answers in ink by hand. Pencil may be used for maps, diagrams, or rough work.
  • 4. Checking Answer Booklet:
    • Candidates must write their roll number (not their name) only in the space provided on each answer booklet used for this purpose. Before starting to write in the answer booklet, please check that it is complete. If any pages of an answer booklet are missing, replace it. Do not tear any pages from the answer booklet. If you use more than one answer booklet, write the total number of answer booklets used on the front page of the first answer booklet. Do not leave any blank spaces between answers. If such spaces are left, cross them out.
  • 5. Evaluation of Answers:
    • Answers submitted beyond the prescribed number will not be evaluated. Candidates must compulsorily follow the instructions given on each question paper for answering questions. If answers are given for more than the prescribed number of questions, only the first answers up to the prescribed number will be evaluated. The rest will not be evaluated.
  • 6. Graph/Table Writing:
    • Candidates must write answers to questions involving graphs/tables on graph/table writing sheets provided by the invigilator on demand. Candidates must securely bind all used or unused loose sheets, such as table writing sheets, diagram sheets, graph sheets, etc., if any, with their answer booklet and additional answer booklet(s). If candidates do not follow these instructions, they will be penalized. Candidates must not write their roll number on these sheets.
  • 7. Strict Prohibition of Unfair Means:
    • A candidate shall neither copy from nor allow others to copy from another candidate's paper, nor provide any other kind of irregular assistance, nor attempt to provide assistance, nor receive assistance, nor attempt to receive assistance. It will be the responsibility of each candidate to ensure that they do not resort to unfair means.

Appendix-III (Part B): Special Instructions for Candidates Regarding Objective Papers

  • 1. Items allowed in the examination hall:

    • Clip board or hard board (nothing written on it), a good quality black ball pen for marking answers on the answer sheet, and rough work sheets to be provided by the invigilator.
  • 2. Prohibited items in the examination hall:

    • Apart from the items mentioned above, no other items such as books, notes, loose papers, electronic devices, or any other type of calculator, mathematical and drawing instruments, logarithm tables, maps, stencils, slide rules, test booklets and rough work papers related to previous session(s) should be brought into the examination hall.
    • (a) During the examination, the use of mobile phones (whether switched off or not), pagers, or any other electronic device, programmable device, storage media like pen drives, smartwatches, cameras, or Bluetooth devices, or any other related device or communication equipment, whether switched off or on, is strictly prohibited. Any violation of these instructions may lead to disciplinary action, including debarment from future examinations. Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring mobile phones/pagers or any other prohibited items to the examination venue, as their safety cannot be guaranteed.
  • 3. Penalty for Wrong Answers (Objective Type Question Paper):

    • There will be a penalty (negative marking) for wrong answers given by candidates in objective type question papers.
    • (i) For each question, there are four alternative answers. One-third (0.33) of the marks allotted to the question will be deducted as a penalty for each wrong answer given by the candidate.
    • (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer, even if one of the given answers is correct, and the same penalty as above will be applicable for that question.
    • (iii) If a candidate does not attempt a question, i.e., does not give any answer, no penalty will be imposed for that question.
  • 4. Strict Prohibition of Unfair Means:

    • No candidate shall copy from or allow others to copy from another candidate's paper, nor provide any other kind of irregular assistance, nor attempt to provide assistance, nor receive assistance, nor attempt to receive assistance.
  • 5. Conduct in the Examination Hall:

    • No candidate shall misbehave or create any disturbance in the examination hall or disturb the staff appointed by the Commission for conducting the examination. Strict penalties will be imposed for any such misconduct.

Answer Sheet Details

  • 6. (i) Candidates must write their center and subject, test booklet series (in brackets), subject code, and roll number with a black ball pen in the designated space at the top of the answer sheet. They must also code their test booklet series (A, B, C or D, as applicable), subject code, and roll number with a black ball pen in the circles provided for this purpose. Instructions for writing and coding the above details are given in the principle appendix. If the booklet does not have a printed series or the answer sheet is unnumbered, immediately report to the invigilator and replace the test booklet/answer sheet.
  • (ii) Candidates should note that any error/mistake/discrepancy in coding/filling details on the answer sheet, especially regarding the roll number and test booklet series code, will result in the rejection of the answer sheet.
  • (iii) Immediately after the examination begins, please check that the test booklet given to you does not have any unprinted, torn, or missing pages or items. If so, get it replaced with a complete test booklet of the same series and subject.
  • **7. Do not write your name or anything else other than the requested specific information on the answer sheet/test booklet/rough work sheets.
  • **8. Do not fold or damage or waste the answer sheets or put any unwanted/irrelevant marks on them. Do not write anything on the back of the answer sheet.
  • **9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated by computerized machines, candidates should exercise full care in maintaining and filling them. They must use only black ball pens to darken the circles. They must use black ball pens to write in the boxes. Since the entries filled by candidates by darkening the circles will be evaluated by computerized machines, they must fill these entries with great care and accuracy. Candidates should mark their answers on the answer sheet with a good quality black ball pen.
  • 10. Method of Marking Answers:
    • In the "objective" examination, you will not have to write answers. For each question (hereinafter referred to as item), several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as response) are given, and you have to choose one response for each item. The question paper will be in the form of a test booklet. In this booklet, responses will be marked as (A), (B), (C), and (D) below the items in numerical order 1, 2, 3... etc. Your task is to choose one correct response. If you find more than one response correct, you have to choose the best response from them.
    • In any situation, you have to choose only one response for each item. If you choose more than one response, your response will be considered wrong.
    • For example, if the correct response to item 1 is (B), then you should darken the circle with the letter (B) completely with a black ball pen as shown below:
      • Example (a) • (c) (d)
  • 11. Entry in Scannable Attendance List:
    • Candidates must fill the relevant details in their column in the scannable attendance list with a black ball pen only, as shown below:

Appendix-IV: Certificate Regarding Inability to Write by the Candidate for Examination

  • This certificate is for PwBD candidates and must be issued by a medical authority (e.g., Ophthalmologist for visual impairment, Orthopedic specialist/PMR for locomotor disability). It certifies that the candidate is unable to write due to their disability.

Appendix-V: Undertaking for Bringing Own Scribe

  • This undertaking is to be submitted online by the candidate, stating their name, roll number, examination center, district, state, and educational qualification. It also includes an undertaking that the scribe's educational qualification is not higher than the candidate's.

Appendix-VI: Certificate for Persons with Specified Disabilities but less than 40% and Writing Difficulty

  • This certificate is for individuals with specified disabilities as per Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016, but less than 40% as per Section 2(r), who have writing difficulties. It certifies the nature and extent of disability, the need for a scribe, and the use of assistive devices. It is valid for a maximum of six months.

Appendix-VII: Undertaking for Persons with Specified Disabilities but less than 40% and Writing Difficulty

  • This is an undertaking by the candidate, confirming their disability, examination details, and educational qualification. It includes an undertaking to provide a scribe and states that the candidate will not use their scribe's higher qualification for the position if the scribe's qualification is found to be higher than declared.

13. Withdrawal of Applications

  • Candidates are not permitted to withdraw their application after submission.

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